Chlamydia Question
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Reading the internet around sexual health topics just makes be stress and anxious. Here's my story...
I had a possible exposure to Chlamydia and Gonorrhea in February of last year (2018). That included receiving oral sex from a woman without a condom and vaginal sex with a condom.
After the encounter I had no symptoms - which I know is common with these two infections. But for peace of mind I took a test in July both of which came back negative. It's been a year and I still have no symptoms such as burning, urgency to pee or increase urination but am paranoid since when I was tested, I provided my urine sample mid-stream instead of first catch. As a male, I wasn't given any direction when I provided the sample and really just want to know does that make a difference and might it have been the cause of a false negative?
I was told by the provider that "first void urine is recommended but is not required. A midstream collection will not skew the test results. If the bacteria is present in the urine, then it will be detectable whether the sample is a first void or midstream sample."
My hope is this is all in my head but I am hopeful another male on the board might have had a similar experience.
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