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?Really hoping someone can shed some light on what seems like positive but somewhat confusing results..
?50yo and have been symptomatic for some years now - hesitancy with urination, weak flow, stream all over the shop etc..
?Went to the Doc with what I thought was a UTI in January. Had a course of ABs which seemed to help with that and a couple of weeks later had a full blood workup. Based on my symptoms, the Doc also ordered an Ultrasound.
?Results were prostate vol 60cc and Total PSA at the time was 3.73. radiographer also noted some tissue heterogeneity in the prostate. No other PSA related tests were done. Had a follow up DRE which was normal. Doc ordered a repeat PSA + Free PSA to be done a month later in Feb.
?Well it's May and I've just had that repeat test done My expectation was that that PSA would probably be the same or close to - had no idea what to expect with fPSA but was obviously hoping for a high number. The results were tPSA 1.04, fPSA 76.9%.
?Now as I said, those results are great right? Without medication, tPSA is less than 1/3 of what it was and fPSA is through the roof..BUT, ..WHY?
?Prostate is still enlarged, symptoms haven't changed - and with all the reading I've done the fPSA just seems too good to be true..(?) So, ...I'm one part relieved and one part thinking "Hang on, this doesn't make any sense.. Is it possible they've screwed up the assay..?" Particularly with that fPSA result, which just seems to be waay outside of the reference ranges I've seen for much younger guys with normal prostates(?) - I think that is the one that is confusing me most...
Anyhow, current GP advice is "watchful waiting" and repeat in a year. Very happy to move on for now and do just that but would appreciate some other informed opinions on those results. Do they seem right? Am I confusing myself for no good reason? Do tests even get screwed up these days (is that even possible with all the tech, checks and balances that must be in place..?)
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