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About 8 years ago I was sent to a sleep clinic to investigate severe insomnia. I had increasingly worse case of feeling mentally alert at night, having rambling thoughts through to the morning hours. The sleep clinic doctor said I woke up something like 65 times and something about my sleep state going from deep REM to wakefulness uncommonly rapidly. He prescribed Zopiclone--I think 5 mg. It worked for me at first--I slept almost 8 hours. Then after a short while its effectivness kept reducing in duration until I was always awake after 4 hours, so I was given 7.5 ml (after a while, same effect again after 4 hours), then 15 ml, which was too strong and left me totally zoned out the next day (and anyway left me feeling awake after 4 hours). Since the stronger dose didn't seem to be better than 5 mg for me, I first asked for a reduction down to 7.5 mg, and then down again to 5 mg, which I have been on for many years.
Strange use? It seems the benefit of zopiclone for me is in helping me fall asleep and stay asleep for 4 hours, not 8. Here's my nightly ritual, every single night: I split the 5 mg pill in half and take the first half at bedtime. After about 3-5 hours, I rouse from sleep to find my thoughts are rambling uncontrollably again, so I take the second half of the pill at around 4 in the morning. I then generally sleep soundly and wake up in time to get ready for work.
Here are my questions for the group: Is there anything weird about this pattern of staying on 5 mg or years on end, and taking them in two halves every night? Is there any reason to be concerned about continuing to do this?
Thanks so much in advance for your insights.
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